Is this true? I have seen a question like this:

Does vaccination protect the unexposed region from the same type of HPV if one has a genital exposure, but not oral, or vice versa?

I could not find info on this, now if I were knowledgeable on all the mechanisms behind HPV, this seems like it has an obvious answer, but I am not. I only know that oral HPV without the visible lesion is not easily transmittable, that HPV-16 is nearly all of oral HPVs. I wondered, HPV-16 is the most common, if I were to be exposed genitally, but not orally, would Gardasil or similar vaccine protect me orally? Or once the virus entered your system somewhere, at that moment, vaccination cannot help, so vaccinating will protect me from everything else that it covers, but not HPV-16, regardless the location.

Is question legitimate? If this was true, it might mean that if you are clear at the genital region, you are also clear in the mouth region if we are talking about HPV-16 for example, for one particular type.