Oh ... I thought I was putting it into English ...

I will reread the article and try harder to put it into perspective in the next couple of days - right now I have people to see and places to go ...

Long and short of it though, is this

The incidence of HPV +ve oral cancer has increased from approximately 16% in the 1980s to approximately 21% in the 2000s. These numbers relate to ALL oral cancer.

HPV is not implicated in 72% of all oral cancer today. It is implicated in 72% of oropharyngeal cancer only.

These numbers regularly get mixed up due to the reporter/author being unaware that whilst all oropharyngeal cancer is oral cancer, not all oral cancer is oropharyngeal cancer. I have tried to illustrate an analogy before with "all leopards are cats but not all cats are leopards" with fairly pathetic success. Maybe someone else who sees what I am trying to say can elucidate in English.

A caveat: In my opinion, comparisons between the 1980s and now should be viewed with extreme caution. It is possible that the reason for the rise may be due at least in part to the medical profession's awareness of HPV and their subsequent testing for it in addition to or rather than, a rise in the incidence of cancer causing HPV.

Seems I am incapable of doing a short answer ... Lets hope it was at least in English??