I have questions around such a high rate of oral cancer being attributable to HPV.

I can see that 64% of all patients could test positive for HPV (and have read figures much higher), but how can one say that the HPV caused the oral cancer? And surely if this is what is being suggested, the patient group would have to be non-smoking otherwise, how could one relate the cancer to HPV and not smoking? I would also suggest this figure might be possible in young patients under 50 (or even 60)?

Waiting for the publication with bated breath.

Also, DonB, I needed your skills a few months ago when I took 3 (very long) emails to convince our RO to test my Alex for HPV (RO was convinced HPV status was irrelevant because Alex had a smoking/drinking history). My attempt to summarise the abstract was long winded and convoluted in making the point you make so eloquently. Will call on you the next time I have to go into battle for something.