I just re-read the specifics again and I'm confused now.

In the first part, it sounds like they focused on a subgroup who received the vaccine, developed HPV disease anyway, and subsequently had less recurrence than the placebo group. A generalization was made by the authors suggesting benefit of getting the vaccine after HPV disease although that is not what was in the study's methodology.

In the second part, "The studies did not include baseline HPV testing or clinical examination before randomization, so women with ongoing HPV disease were permitted." Therefore, it sounds like some of these women were indeed HPV+, yet not confirmed with any testing before receiving the vaccine.

So I'm confused. Did any of these women benefit from receiving the vaccine AFTER they were HPV+ or not?
Thanks